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USMLE Step 1 Musculoskeletal, Skin & Subcutaneous Tissue practice questions

Rheumatologic disease, bone/joint pathology, and dermatologic conditions. This category has 111 original questions in the full StepExamPrep bank — here are 3 samples with complete explanations.

Sample question 1

Which of the following is the single most important prognostic factor for cutaneous melanoma?

A. Tumor color
B. Breslow depth (tumor thickness) Correct
C. Patient hair color
D. Tumor location on the body exclusively
E. Patient age exclusively
Explanation:

Breslow depth (the measured vertical thickness of tumor invasion) is the single most important prognostic factor for cutaneous melanoma, directly correlating with metastatic risk and used centrally in staging.

Sample question 2

A sexually active young adult has an acutely swollen, painful knee. Synovial fluid analysis shows a WBC count of 60,000/uL with predominantly neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

A. Staphylococcus aureus Correct
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Candida albicans
Explanation:

While gonococcal arthritis is an important consideration in sexually active young adults, S. aureus remains the single MOST COMMON cause of septic (bacterial) arthritis overall across age groups.

Sample question 3

A 4-year-old boy has calf enlargement, difficulty climbing stairs, and uses his hands to push up from the floor to standing. Creatine kinase is markedly elevated. Which of the following best describes the molecular defect?

A. Trinucleotide repeat expansion
B. Frameshift mutation causing absent dystrophin Correct
C. In-frame deletion causing partially functional dystrophin
D. Mitochondrial DNA point mutation
E. Autosomal dominant sarcomere protein mutation
Explanation:

This presentation (Gowers sign, calf pseudohypertrophy, markedly elevated CK, early childhood onset) is Duchenne muscular dystrophy, caused by a frameshift mutation resulting in absent dystrophin protein.

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