Neuroanatomy, psychiatric disorders, pharmacology of the CNS, and the special senses. This category has 132 original questions in the full StepExamPrep bank — here are 3 samples with complete explanations.
A 68-year-old man with Down syndrome develops progressive memory loss and cognitive decline. Which of the following best explains his increased risk for this condition at a younger age than the general population?
The amyloid precursor protein (APP) gene is located on chromosome 21; the extra copy present in trisomy 21 leads to increased APP/amyloid production over a lifetime, causing Down syndrome patients to develop Alzheimer pathology (plaques) at a substantially younger age.
An elderly patient has a triad of gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and cognitive decline. Brain imaging shows enlarged ventricles without significant cortical atrophy. Which of the following is the most important reason to recognize this condition promptly?
Normal pressure hydrocephalus ("wet, wobbly, wacky") is one of the few potentially REVERSIBLE causes of dementia-like symptoms, treatable with CSF shunting — making prompt recognition especially valuable.
A 35-year-old man has severe, unilateral periorbital headaches lasting 30-60 minutes, occurring multiple times daily for several weeks, accompanied by ipsilateral lacrimation and nasal congestion. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute treatment?
This is cluster headache; acute treatment options include high-flow 100% oxygen and/or triptans, which can be quite effective for aborting attacks.
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